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> 'Psychopathy' was a catch-all category that he is making increasingly more catch-all.

I don't understand this. How is he making a term 'more catch-all' by defining a peer-reviewed checklist that defines what 'psychopathy' actually is? Prior to that it was a term that had no exact or standard meaning. By creating a formal definition, debate can happen as to which parts of the definition are right or wrong, but prior to that serious debate was meaningless since everyone had a different definition.



Seconded. As I recall, the PCL-R matches far fewer people than DSM-IV's ASPD criteria.




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