Do you know how that came about? It seems like a weird restriction. I can understand wanting to prevent shady firms from misrepresenting non-lawyers as lawyers to clients, but I don't understand why any of the rest of it follows.

This bit seems like a loophole:

> (3) a lawyer or law firm may include nonlawyer employees in a compensation … plan, even though the plan is based in whole … on a profit-sharing arrangement