The idea that the U.K. was getting used is an interesting one considering they are the only one who get/got a rebate on their EU contributions: relative to their GDP the U.K. is/was objectively paying less than other members (when looking st the last couple of decades - the U.K. was struggling economically when the rebate was negotiated).
The UK also get proportionally less from the EU that those that didn't get a rebate. This was the reason the rebate was given, why else would the EU agree to it?
It's only recently that the matter of the rebate is being spun to bash the UK.
