US v. MS in the 90s was big and I'd agree quite helpful. The argument then was "MS has a monopoly and is using it to squash competition from competing applications" And going by the numbers they absolutely did have a monopoly[1]. Macintosh was a rounding error compared to IBM PC.
This new fight over the iPhone seems so drastically different in one key aspect. Apple does have a large share and the court can decide whether it's unfairly treating competing apps but... it is clearly not a monopoly, iPhone only accounts for 25% of sales, far less than Microsoft owning the computer market in the 90s.
Any one have any takes on this aspect? Does the market share not matter just the practices?
[1] https://arstechnica.com/features/2005/12/total-share/
[2] https://www.statista.com/statistics/216459/global-market-share-of-apple-iphone/