> Do they analyse the prices actually paid by the average attendee, which includes prices paid to scalpers?
Unclear--the source describes the price variable as the "weighted average of seats normally available to the public" [1]. (It's also from 1992.)
> if scalpers don't cause attenders to pay more overall, then why do they exist?
Same reason underwriters do: they reduce risk for the seller and increase convenience for the buyer. You can absolutely have a situation where a minority of buyers pay more, thereby allowing the remaining 90% to pay less.
Unclear--the source describes the price variable as the "weighted average of seats normally available to the public" [1]. (It's also from 1992.)
> if scalpers don't cause attenders to pay more overall, then why do they exist?
Same reason underwriters do: they reduce risk for the seller and increase convenience for the buyer. You can absolutely have a situation where a minority of buyers pay more, thereby allowing the remaining 90% to pay less.
[1] https://sci-hub.ru/https://www.jstor.org/stable/2487999